Task manager cpu utilization

[hyperj123]

One thing I have noticed is that since I have overclocked my i5-2500k to a massive 4.8ghz sometimes it still shows in task manager 100% cpu utilization. Does windows account for this overclock or is it reading it based off of what the chip is originally clocked at? For example say an application is using 4 cores and the speed of the processor is at 3.8ghz. task manager will show 100% utilization because technically it is utilizing 3.3ghz on all 4 cores even though I have more headroom. Let me know if this doesn't make sense.

[manikyath]

the point of overclocking is to make stuff go faster, it'd have been a waste of your time to get 20% faster clock speed only to see 20% less cpu usage

 

100% cpu basicly means an application is going as fast as your cpu can execute it, which is proportionally faster along with your overclock.

[hyperj123]

1 hour ago, manikyath said:

the point of overclocking is to make stuff go faster, it'd have been a waste of your time to get 20% faster clock speed only to see 20% less cpu usage

 

100% cpu basicly means an application is going as fast as your cpu can execute it, which is proportionally faster along with your overclock.

My main question is, is task manager reporting 100% usage on the 3.3ghz that initially reported by the chip? Or does it report 100% cpu usage when I'm actually using 100% of my cpu clocked at 4.8ghz?

[manikyath]

7 hours ago, hyperj123 said:

My main question is, is task manager reporting 100% usage on the 3.3ghz that initially reported by the chip? Or does it report 100% cpu usage when I'm actually using 100% of my cpu clocked at 4.8ghz?

it reports 100% of whatever frequency its running at.